Designing Cisco Networks (DCN)
Use the following case study to answer the next 12 questions.
FSI Test Equipment Incorporated: Precision test equipment manufacturing FSI manufactures high-end, high-volume semi-custom test equipment. Though the company only employs 150 people, sales revenue and profitability are very high because of niche market control and product price levels. Each piece of equipment is built to order and goes through rigorous testing and integration. As a result of market dominance, growth and profitability, company management has decided to make an initial public offering (IPO) of its stock. FSI has customers through out the world. Because their equipment integrates so tightly with customers’ high tech manufacturing systems, the company in reality becomes a partner with its customers during the design, manufacturing, and testing of the equipment. Purchase order to operational date cycles are typically one year and approximately five systems are in the development cycle at any gives time. Timely, accurate, and secure communications with the customer throughout the cycle is in imperative. Hardware design involves a significant number of CAD drawings to be stored and transmitted. Software development requires hundreds of thousands of lines of code for each customer. Though much of the code is reused, it nonetheless requires configuration and revision control for each customer. With funds raised from the IPO, FSI wants to improve its ability to interface, communicate and respond to its customers. It wants to implement secure FTP of code and drawings to its customer. Security is of utmost importance and therefore FSI is not sure if can trust the Internet to accomplish these transfers. Because of financial concerns, the company would much prefer the Internet to a private network if it can be convinced that the transfers can be made secure. Otherwise it will consider a private network. The company also would like to implement an inter-company workflow system for routing of electronic forms between FSI and its customers world-wide. Again, security is the issue. It would be wonderful if they can use the Internet for both these functions, but the new board of directors must be convinced. FSI offices are in San Jose, California. The project team assigned to customers has two sub-teams: the manufacturing and development team in San Jose, and the integration teams moves on site to the customers’ facilities. Communication is by telephone, e-mail, and even overnight package delivery. 25% of FSI employees (38-40) people are housed at customer sites at any given time. These field persons are in teams of approximately 8 people. A Novell PC LAN on Ethernet is established for each team within the customers’ facilities with a dial-up Internet connection using Livingston router for e-mail. In the San Jose office, FSI has two LANs with 80 PCs. The main LAN has 5 sun AutoCAD workstations that will use the test software, 20 Pentium UNIX engineering workstations for software development on one segment, and 50 office automation desktops running the Lotus Suite on another segment. These two LAN segments are connected to a Novell server with the two Ethernet cards as the only routing mechanism between the two. The second LAN has five processes monitoring an analysis PCs that collect and analyses the test data. This data is accesses continuously by the engineering staff from their workstation. The two LANs are networked with a third Internet card in the Novel server. Engineering staff is frequently frustrated with the performance across this link. You have been asked to provide a design and justification for an intranet/Internet bases solution that will convince the board of directors that the solution is viable and secure.
1. What is a fact to consider in establishing the customer's acceptance criteria of the networks?
Livingston routers are in use.
Security is of utmost importance.
Though code is reused, it requires configuration control for each customer.
FSI must work in a
2. Which statement is a business-related issue that affects the network design?
Timely, accurate, and secure communication with FSI customers is imperative.
The network must provide bandwidth to support large CAD and engineering files and data.
In order to accomplish the onsite work required of the field team, a Novell LAN is installed at each customer site.
The CAD and engineering workstations are maintained on a separate LAN segment because of the importance of consistent high performance of the systems.
3. Which statement is true with regard to development of a topology map FSI Test Equipment?
A FastHub 400 will be required for desktop switching.
IPX support will be required at the headquarters location.
At each of FSI's locations, a router providing Ethernet and WAN support is required.
The Cisco 3640 is a good router choice because it supports both Ethernet and Token Ring.
4. Which criterion would indicate that the prototype is a success?
Speedy e-mail response.
Speedy AS400 application response time.
Fast office productivity application response.
File Transfer of CAD drawings within a given time frame.
5. Diagramming application information flow for the FSI Test Equipment case study is important because:
It will help identify media requirements.
It will help identify applications to eliminate.
It will help identify potentially heavy traffic paths.
It will help identify the requirements that an ISP must meet.
6. Which statement identifies an FSI test equipment schedule constraint?
FSI has customers throughout the world.
The typical implementation of a system is one year.
FSI feels that an Internet-concentrated design will save time and money.
25% if the FSIs employees are housed at customer''s offices at any given time.
7. True/False: It not necessary to build the entire network to improve the network design meets customer's needs.
8. You discover that the most critical issue is secure, timely communications with the field sites over the Internet. Which possibility would you include in a prototype lab to convince the board of the acceptability of the Internet solution?
Order and install the WAN circuits in the prototype lab.
Purchase and install the Internet firewall in the prototype lab.
Order and install a remove access server in the prototype lab.
Purchase and install the Ethernet switch designed into the headquarters LAN.
9. There will be _____ users who will be using test analysis software.
150 or more
10. The ISP has notified FSI that will be connecting to a Bay Networks router. What would be the most probable routing protocol choice?
11. Which task must you complete in order to develop a high-level topology map for FSI Test Equipment?
Identify the ISP.
Identify the implementation schedule.
Determine the exact number and type of PCs, servers and hosts.
Within reason, determine the location, number, and type of PCs, servers, and workstations.
12. What would most likely be your first step in diagramming packet flow generated by the autoflow box stations?
Identify the location of all CAD workstations.
Identify any bottlenecks in the current network.
Identify the router products to be used in the system.
Identify how many users are on the same network segment.
Use the following case study to answer the next 11 questions.
EIC Satellite Systems: Digital satellite television programming sales EIC sells minidish satellite systems and television programs in central Europe. Its sales network comprises 10 company owned offices, 25 distributed sales and installation offices and a central office in Milan, Italy. In the central office 75 representatives provide 24 hour telephone support and order processing for programming changes. There are 200 employees in the central office with PCs running Microsoft Office in addition to telephone representatives. The company’s order processing, billing, accounting and programming systems reside on a large AS400 system in Milan. The 10 company offices are connected to this system with 9600bps leased lines. 25 distributor offices dial in to the system twice a day to upload order and download installation work order. An Ethernet LAN with three Novel servers supports the 275 central office employees. On average, the 10 offices have 4 PCs connected via Ethernet with Microsoft Windows 95. The leased line in each office does not provide a touted connection but a serial connection of 5250 terminal emulation to the communication port on the PC. The 25distributer offices dial in to the three PC Anywhere remote control computers that run 5250 terminal emulation and scripts that download installation work orders and upload new account orders to the AS400. To reduce transaction processing coast EIC will implement intranet technology to replace the current data communication mode. A Web server will be installed on the AS400 with back- end CGI that will interface to the order processing, billing and work order system. Java applets will be built for both remote PCs. EIC anticipates that these changes will allow it to handle twice the transactions without upgrading the AS400, while maintaining current transaction processing times. The company offices will be connected via ISDN routers using bonding between channels for the new browser-based applications. Similar browser-based connections will be accomplished for the distributor offices using a direct dial to the EIC Milan main office. Unless convinced otherwise, EIC intends to use the existing 9600bps lines for the routed connections. It is also desirable to provide an in Internet dial-up connections for customers to make their own configuration changes online and to order pay-per-view programming. Security for these transactions will be provided by secure Web transactions. Data transmission encryption is not necessary because these basically are secure Web-based credit card transactions.
EIC would like a design and proposal from you to provide the networking for this new architecture that must be implemented in parallel with current operations.
13. Which statement is true with regard to development of a detailed network design drawing for EIC Satellite Systems?
The ISP DNS should be used.
A router will be required at each EIC-owned location.
Information on the exact model and features of the AS400 will be required.
Based on the number of server at EIC catalyst 2900 series XL switch is a good choice for Ethernet switching.
14. In diagramming the packet flow for the new application at EIC Satellite Systems, which benefits of the new network would you bring to EIC's attention?
The router at Milan will be a single point of failure.
Three dial-in connections will not be sufficient for the future.
The new network will provide access to the Internet for the AS400s.
The new network can provide a redundant path through the Internet to reach the AS400.
15. What is a fact to consider in establishing EIC acceptance criteria of the new network?
EIC intends to use a single PRI in Milan.
Memory will have to be added to the AS400
A web server will be installed on the AS400
Some of the distributors use Apple Macintoshes
16. With regard to network capacity in the EIC Satellite Systems case study, which statement is true?
The AS400 access and usage patterns are well understood and do not represent a capacity issue.
A prototype must be developed to demonstrate that the intranet technology will in fact work for EIC.
Because we do not have information on the disk storage in the servers, we know almost nothing regarding network capacity.
Because little is known about the true load from the sales offices, it would be a good idea to monitor this area during a phased implementation of a single site.
17. Which task would you complete to identify EIC Satellite Systems' business issues that will affect your network design?
Identify and document EIC's internal data-flow patterns.
Identify and document EIC's existing technology investment.
Identify and document the technical competencies of the support staff.
Identify and document the business objectives, schedule requirements, and political issues.
18. Which statement is true with regard to network hardware requirements for EIC Satellite Systems?
The DSN system should be identified.
A router will be required at each EIC_owned location
Information on the exact model and features of the AS400 will be required.
Based on the number of servers at EIC, the Catalyst 2900 Series XL switch is a good choice for Ethernet Switching.
19. In the EIC Satellite Systems case study the best recommendation for assigning IP addresses to end-user computers is to ___?
Assign IP addresses manually.
Have users chose their own address.
Use the Cisco Network Registrar product.
Use Cisco''s IOS software NAT feature to dynamically assign IP addresses.
20. What would most likely be the first step in diagramming the first packet flow of the new application?
Identify any bottlenecks in the current network.
Determine if the 6600bps lines will be adequate.
Identify the location of all users and nodes that will use the new application.
Determine if Ethernet switching will be required.
21. What is a fact to consider in establishing EIC's acceptance criteria of the new network?
The new architecture must be implemented in parallel with the current operations.
The sales offices have an average number of four PC's each.
SNA will continue to be supported on the new LAN.
The 5250 terminals may reduce system performance.
22. Management's most critical concern is the speed of the ISDN lines to the sales office. Which activity would best prove that these lines should be adequate?
Set up a lab and simulate 56/64 Kbps lease lines connected to the Internet for browsing.
Perform a simple demonstration of a Web browser's performance on and ISDN line to an Internet site.
Implement the network with the existing 9600bps lines and let EIC see that the performance is lacking.
Perform a simple demonstration of a Web browser''s performance on the Internet on a 33.6Kbps connection.
23. In the EIC Satellite Systems case study, it is not necessary to build the entire network to provide the network design meets the customer's needs.
24. ISDN networks supports both _____.
Synchronous and ADSL modems.
Toll-connecting trunks and tie trunks.
Terminal handlers and external PADs.
Network termination 1 and network termination 2 devices.
25. What is the role of secondary station in the SDLC protocol?
A secondary station provides fault tolerance for a primary station.
A secondary station enables communication for remote devices when polled by a primary station.
A secondary station initiates communication with primary station when remote devices are ready to communicate.
Each station can be either a primary or secondary station. The primary station is the station that initiates communications, and the secondary is receiving station.
26. What is a TE2 device used for in an ISDN connection?
Connecting an NT2 device to an NT1 device.
Connecting a non-ISDN terminal to ISDN through a TA.
Connecting four-wire subscriber to two-wire loops.
Connecting to ISDN through a four-wire, twisted-pair digital link.
27. What are two typical uses of ISDN? (Choose two).
Upgrade a lower bandwidth T1 line.
Provide multiple links to home offices.
Connect backbone devices in CDDI networks.
Connect high priority lobes on Token Ring networks.
High-speed transfer of data, graphics and multimedia.
28. Which area does the S reference point define on an ISDN end to end connection?
The reference point between NT1 and NT2 devices.
The reference point between NT1 devices and line termination equipment in a carrier network.
The reference point between user terminals and an NT2.
The reference point between non ISDN equipment and a TA.
29. Which device is part of the customer network and initiates a Frame Relay communication exchange with the carrier network?
30. Which statement is NOT true about Frame Relay?
A Frame Relay connection is identified by DLCI.
Frame Relay uses FECN to tell a receiving DTE that a message experienced congestion.
At the customer's site there is a single electrical interface that appears to be many distinc interfaces to other sites.
Frame Relay is based on the IEEE 802 6 standard for metropolitan-area networks.
31. When comparing the advantages and disadvantages of a full-mesh versus a partial-mesh Frame Relay design, which statement is most accurate?
A partial mesh is less expensive due to fewer virtual circuits.
Split horizon limits connectivity in a full mesh.
A full mesh is more expensive due to more routers.
Broadcast copying overhead is higher in a partial mesh.
32. Which two statements regarding DLCIs are true? (Choose two)
DLCIs are not necessarily unique.
DLCIs are not necessary with PVCs.
DLCIs initiate a Frame Relay communication exchange.
DLCIs are logical identifiers for Frame Relay virtual circuits.
DLCIs are carries equipment and sit at the border of the carrier and customer networks.
DLCIs are customer equipment and sit at the border of the carrier and customer networks.
33. Which set of Frame Relay enhancements offers extensions for managing complex Internetworks?
34. Which error checking method is employed by Frame Relay to determine of errors occurred during transmissions between source to destination? (Choose three)
Odd and even parity.
35. Which type of ATM connection supports bi-directional communication?
Point-to-point and point-to-multipoint
36. A channel exceeds the agreed bandwidth usage scone. How does the ATM QOS policing feature respond?
Terminates the virtual path.
Suspends communications for 50 ms.
Reduces the size of the cell window.
Makes data cells eligible for discarding.
37. You are setting up an ATM network, which ATM Adaptation layer type should you use to support the voice circuit emulation?
38. When implementing LAN communications over an ATM network, you must have which type of device per ELAN?
LAN emulation server.
LAN emulation router.
LAN emulation gateway.
LAN emulation mapping service.
39. When are SNMP Trap messages sent?
When NMS need to initialise agents.
When agents have events to report to an NMS.
When an NMS wants agents to begin recording events.
When an NMS wants a proxy station to take over agent monitoring.
40. How do SNMPv1 Network Management Systems request multiple records from an MIB?
The NMS uses the Dump protocol operation.
The NMS uses the GetMib protocol operation.
The NMS uses the GetBulk protocol operation.
The NMS uses multiple Get and GetNext protocol operations.
41. SNMP agents are:
ISO officials who periodically perform audits on companies running target SNMP-managed networks.
Applications designated to monitor the activity of SNMP management systems and alert the user in the event of a problem.
Software modules running in managed devices whose function is to make information about the device available to the NMS.
Computers dedicated to the task of querying SNMP devices for relevant information and cataloging that information in a database.
42. SNMP uses traps to _____.
Systematically isolate points of failure in the managed network.
Prevent unauthorised users from performing set operations to alter management information.
Allow managed devices to report specific significant events to the NMS whenever they occur.
Allow network administrators to monitor specific protocol traffic information by selective filtering.
43. What is the function of an SNMP MIB?
Stores data reported from all monitored stations at the NMS.
Stores the IP address of the stations at the NMS monitors.
Stores configuration data that controls how the NMS for monitored stations for updates.
Stores monitored variables and the variables that control operation of a single monitored station.
44. How will the transparent bridge manage traffic from node A to the other nodes?
Forward traffic to all nodes.
Broadcast traffic to all nodes.
Filter traffic to nodes C and D and ignore traffic to node B.
Filter traffic to node B and forward traffic to nodes C and D.
45. Which condition would result in recommending routing instead of switching?
Many Ethernet collisions.
Bandwidth utilisation over 40 percent on Ethernet.
Many desktops protocols sending packets to find services.
Excessive number of Ethernet run frames (shorter then 64 bytes)
46. Which other type of network device operates in a manner similar to LAN switches?
Source route bridge
Source route translational bridge
47. Which LAN switching feature is unique to cut through switches?
Higher port density.
Frame length validation.
48. Which data is analysed before a Layer 2 LAN switch passes data to other ports?
MAC address and network address.
Protocol type, MAC address, and network address.
49. How does a transparent bridge learn which nodes connect to which bridge interfaces?
It examines the source MAC addresses used in network traffic on each interface.
It examines the source network addresses used in network traffic on each interface.
It sends explorer packets out whenever an unknown node is specified as on destination.
It broadcasts hello packets to all nodes on each interface and records addresses included in response packets.
50. When determining whether a customer will see major performance enhancements by moving from a hubbed Ethernet environment to a switched Ethernet environment, which step should you take first?
Investigate the level of collisions.
Investigate the level of broadcasts.
Investigate whether the hubs support auto-partitioning.
Investigate the token-holding timer use by network stations.
51. Which application and positioning statement best describes the Catalyst 1900 series switch?
Workgroup stackable with WAN option.
Stackable, low cost switch for 10BaseT.
Multiplayer, multiple 1, pN, backbone switch.
Stackable, high performance workgroup switch.
52. What is the recommended maximum number of nodes in a flat switched/bridged IP network (single broadcast domain)?
53. How does the spanning-tree protocol prevent bridging loops?
It disables all ports on bridges that could create loops.
It selectively disables bridge ports that could create loops.
It clears the bridge table on the bridges that could create loops.
It blocks access to the bridge table on bridges that could create loops.
54. Which to statements about FDDI are true? (Chose two.)
Token passing controls media access.
All attached devices must be connected to both rings.
The dual rings wrap on either side of a ring failure or device failure.
The secondary ring provides additional bandwidth during heavy traffic.
Multimode fibre allows greater network diameters than single mode fibre
55. When will a Token Ring station send a beacon frame?
When the station is powered up.
When the station is powered down.
When the station has priority for the token.
When the station detects a problem with the network.
56. When is the route to a node on remote ring determined in an SRB Token Ring network?
Before data is sent.
When the data arrives as the first source route bridge.
When the Spanning-Tree Protocol responds to a route request.
As the data passes through intermediate source route bridges.
57. How is data transmitted in a Token Ring network?
A node with data to transmit signals the network with a token, when the token is returned to the node, it begins transmitting the data.
A node with data to transmit signals the hub to which the node is attached. The hub grants access to the network medium bases upon priority of the transmission.
A node with data to transmit listens for traffic on the network medium, if no traffic is detected, the station reserves the medium with a token and begins transmitting.
When a node with data to transmit gains possession of the token, the node modifies a bit in the token, appends the data, and sends the modified token to the next station on the ring.
58. For which two actions is the Active Monitor and a Token Ring network responsible?
Authentication stations logging on the ring..
Granting token priority.
Generating new tokens.
Checking frames errors.
Removing unclaimed frames.
59. How do Apple Talk nodes receive their node addresses?
Nodes request their configuration from a DHCP server.
Nodes choose random addresses to start up and test for conflicts.
MAC addresses in each node are used for the node address, and a router assigns the network address.
Node addresses are assigned during software configuration and a router assigns the network address.
60. What is the purpose of the apple talk AARP protocol?
To update apple talk routing tables.
To map networks or nodes to zones.
To test for remote node availability.
To map Apple Talk addresses to physical addresses.
61. Which statement about Apple Talk network entities is true?
Nodes are assigned to sockets.
Sockets are assigned to zones.
To test for remote node availability.
Nodes are assigned to zones for service advertising.
62. Your customer specified that the IP routing must adhere to recent industry standards and must scale to support a large network. Which routing protocol will you recommend to your client?
63. For which two protocols was the enhanced IGRP protocol developed to improve? (Choose two)
64. Which protocol uses both bandwidth and delay as a path metric?
65. How does a hold-down prevent routing loops?
It prevents routers from counting-to-infinity.
It prevents routers from propagating outdated routing information.
It blocks redundant paths through the internetwork until the primary path should fail.
It prevents routers from sending routing information learned from a neighbouring router back to the neighboring router.
66. Which OSPF entity can connect to another autonomous system?
67. Both distance vector and link-state routing protocols converge more quickly if there is:
Redundancy in the network topology.
Route redistribution between protocols.
Consistent use of the Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Consistent use of the Time To Live field in the IP header.
68. Which two services does the OSPF Hello protocol provide? (Choose two).
It discovers neighbour routers.
It helps to elect a designated router.
It solicits routers from neighbour routers at startup.
It allows administrators to test for network connectivity between two devices.
69. In which two situations is static routing often useful? (Choose two.)
In a stub network.
When internetwork topology frequently changes.
When there are multiple paths to a destination.
In a dial-on-demand configuration.
In a non-switched environment.
70. What happens when the IP RIP route timer expires?
RIP tests the route three times and deletes the route if no reply is received.
The route is marker invalid and deleted from route table.
The route is marked invalid and remains in the route table until the route flush.
The route is marked invalid, remains in the table, and is not advertised to other routers.
71. Which two services does the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) performs for Enhanced IGRP routers?
Selects a designated router for an autonomous system.
Enables faster convergence.
Selects loop-free routers.
Compresses route update packets.
72. What is the function of a routing table?
Resolves MAC addresses to network addresses.
Queues frames to be transmitted by a router.
Records the physical topology of an internetwork..
Stores path information for destinations in the internetwork.
73. Which routing rule prohibits a distance vector router from sending routing information to the same interface from which the routing information was originally received?
Hold down timers
Spanning tree algorithm
Split horizon with poison reverse
74. What are routed protocols?
Protocols that determine optimal paths through Internetworks using routing algorithms.
Protocols used to create Internetworks communication models such as the OSI reference model.
Protocols that perform a variety of functions required for communication between user application in source destination devices.
Protocols that determine the optimal path to transport information between the logical layers of the OSI reference models in a given device.
75. As an example of using route summanization, assume that a router has the following networks behind it and is funning the OSPF routing protocol.
How many networks will this router have to advertise?
76. Routing protocol convergence time:
Is determined by Enhanced IGRP.
Is affected by the data link-layer technology in use.
Is the same for distance vector protocols and link-state protocols.
Includes the time to detect a fault, but not time to determine a new route.
77. Which two routing protocols does NetWare use?
78. When should SAP filters be applied to NetWare service advertisement messages?
Before convergence of all network routers.
Whenever services will not be used in a particular area.
After all services have been advertised for 30 minutes.
After there has been no change in network services for 30 minutes.
79. Which Ethernet encapsulation types are supported in Netware networks?
Novel 802.2, 802.3, 802.5, and Ethernet II.
Novel 802.2, 802.3, 802.5, and Ethernet SNAP.
Novel 802.2, 802.5, Ethernet II, and Ethernet SNAP.
Novel 802.2, 802.3, Ethernet II, and Ethernet SNAP.
80. Which Cisco IOS queuing implementation looks at the size of messages and ensures that high volume senders do not crowd out low volume senders?
Waited fair queuing.
Van Jacobson queuing.
81. Use Cisco IOS network encryption if router utilization is _____ or lower.
82. Before making network design recommendation. You will characterise the existing network's availability and performance. As a general guideline, the buffer misses should not exceed more then about ____ in one hour on any Cisco router.
83. Cisco IOS supports generic traffic shaping. It can be said that generic traffic shaping ___.
Cannot be used with Frame Relay or SMDS.
Does not work on layer 2 data-link technologies.
Provides for generalised BECN on a per virtual circuit (VC) basis
Helps eliminate the bottleneck situation by throtting back traffic volume at the source end.
84. According to RFC 1918, these blocks of addresses are allocated for private networks. What is NOT a range of private addresses as identified in RFC 1918?
85. What is not an advantage of using private Internet addressing?
It increases an enterprise's flexibility to access the Internet.
conserves the globally unique address space by not using it where global uniqueness it not required
enables operationally and administratively convenient addressing schemes as well as easier growth paths.
It allows enterprises to gain flexibility in network design by having more address space at their disposal than they could obtain from the globally unique pool.
86. When designing IP addressing, it is important to design route summarisation. What is NOT true with route summarisation?
It reduces the routing update traffic.
It reduces the overall router overhead.
It increases the complexities of the network.
It reduces the number of routes in the routing table.
87. How do Ethernet IEEE 802.3 nodes respond to collisions on the network medium?
Participant nodes stop transmitting for amount of time and send out randomly.
Participant nodes stop transmitting and the node holding the token transmits.
Participant nodes stop transmitting and listen for traffic before resuming transmissions.
Participant nodes stop transmitting data and request medium access from their attached hubs.
88. What are two differences between 10BaseT and 100BaseT? (Choose two).
Media access method.
Maximum network diameter.
89. Which frame size will provide a impact on network performance when using Ethernet?
A frame size (MTU) that is the minimum supported.
A frame size (MTU) that is the maximum supported.
A frame size (MTU) that uses the largest data block size.
A frame size (MTU) that uses the smallest data block size.
90. What is NOT a business constraint (or limitation) on a project?
Documenting the timeline for this project.
Documenting the names and types of new protocols.
Documenting the budget and resources available for this project.
Identifying any network staffing requirement such as hiring or training.
91. Which task is the second step in building a prototype network structure to prove to a customer that your design works?
Develop a detailed test plan.
Gain an understanding of what your competition plans to propose.
Determine any new customers requirements that affect your design.
Determine how much of the network structure must be built to prove the design concept.
92. What is the first step in designing network layer addressing and naming for a network?
Design route summarisation (aggregation).
Design a method for mapping geographical locations to network numbers.
Design a hierarchy for addressing autonomous systems, areas, networks, subnetworks, and end stations.
Design a plan for distributing administrative authority for addressing and naming at the lower levels of the hierarchy.
93. What is one advantage CHAP has over PAP?
CHAP is an IETF standard. PAP was never standardised.
With CHAP, an intercepted challenge response cannot be replayed to gain access..
CHAP can be exported from the United States to other countries. PAP cannot be exported.
With CHAP, passwords must be stored on a separate server in an encrypted database or file.
94. The central site has a fractional T1 connection and each remote site has a full T1 connection to the central site.
The central site has a fractional T1 connection and each remote site has a full T1 connection to the central site.
Each remote site has a router with one ISDN BRI and the central site has a router with ISDN PRI.
The central site has a multiservice WAN ATM switch that offers personal communication services to the remote sites.
The central site uses a hub and spoke topology including an Ethernet concentrator that has multiple WAN interfaces.
95. Proactive management means all of the following except:
Monitoring the network.
Collecting statistics and watching trends.
Troubleshooting and resolving network problems.
Allocating sufficient staff time and hardware and software resources.
96. Isolating requirements for fault management. accounting management, configuration management, and performance management would fall under which customer requirement?
Identifying security requirements.
Identifying performance requirements.
Identifying manageability requirements.
Identifying business constraints.
97. Which condition does NOT create LAN media problems?
Protocols that do not scale well.
Excessive numbers of collisions on Ethernet networks.
Long waits for the token on Token Ring or FDDI networks.
Too many devices contend for access on a LAN segment.
98. To help reduce the complexity associated with identifying and analysing customer problems and designing solutions, Cisco has developed a basic framework into which most customer problems fit. The framework is a triangle that contains the following components:
Protocols, Transport, and Media
Transport, Media, and NetManagement
Media, Protocols, and NetManagement
Protocols, Transport, and NetManagement
99. When responding to a Request for Proposal (REP), which section should you direct at the key decision makers in a company to clearly articulate your strategy for the project?
100. As a guideline, none of the network segments should have more then ____ broadcasts/multicasts.
101. Which statement is true about network security policies?
End users do not need training on network security.
Security policies should be bases on an understanding of which company assets are most valuable.
Security systems should be designed to maximise the number of secrets, for example, passwords and encryption keys.
A company that has an inflexible security policy that is hard to change is less vulnerable then a company with a flexible policy.
102. Many technologies have been developed to support remote access. Which statement is true about the design goals of the different technologies?
ADSL was designed to support analog transmission of voice, video, and data.
Frame Relay was envisioned as a reliable alternative to dedicated leases lines.
X.25 was designed for simplicity and cost effectiveness when the physical layer is reliable.
High speed digital leases lines were developed to minimise overhead Franc on WAN circuits.
103. What is NOT feature of the hierarchical model for network design?
A hierarchical design facilitates changes to the network architecture.
When the hierarchical design modes is used, redundancy is not required because each payer provides fault tolerance and reliability.
Management responsibility and network management systems can be distributed to the different layers of a modular network architecture.
The modular nature of the hierarchical model enables appropriate use of bandwidth within each layer of the hierarchy, thus reducing cost.
104. Which statement describes the specialised role that the core layer of the hierarchical model plays?
The core layer provides policy-based connectivity.
The core layer provides resource discovery services.
The core layer provides optimal transfer between sites.
The core layer provides workgroup access to the Internetwork.